Under AIP New Zealand ENR 5.1 para 4.1.1, a danger area:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.1 para 9.1.1, separation is provided by ATC between:Under CAR Part 1, 'visibility' means:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.7 paras 2.2.8–2.2.9, a pilot in Class G airspace should use:Under rule 67.55, an applicant for a medical certificate must:Under CAR Part 1, the abbreviation 'PLA' means:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.10 para 2.3.4, a pilot who passes ATS a revised ETA for the destination:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.7 paras 2.2.3, 2.2.5 and 2.2.6, the transition layer between 13,000 ft and FL150:Under rule 91.307(d)(1), if a VFR flight plan has been submitted to an ATS unit, the pilot-in-command must:Under rule 61.105(a)(7) and (8), before a solo flight a student pilot must have:Under rule 135.209(a), for each aeroplane on an air operation the take-off distance required must not exceed:Under CAR Part 1, an 'air operation' means:Under CAR Part 1, the abbreviation 'MEL' means:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.1 paras 8.1.3 and 8.2.2, which statement about ATC clearances and readbacks is correct?Under CAR Part 1, the 'Technical Instructions' are:Under rule 71.53, the lower limit of a control area must be established at the highest practical altitude and:Under AIP New Zealand GEN 3.4 paras 3.3.21–3.3.22, an Aerodrome Frequency Response Unit (AFRU):Under CAR Part 1, 'accelerate-stop distance available' (ASDA) means:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.6 para 3.5.3, when a VFR flight is receiving a radar service:Under rule 91.137, a pilot must not operate within a volcanic hazard zone (VHZ) designated under Part 71:Under rule 91.127(a) and (b), a person must not use a place as an aerodrome or operate an aircraft there unless:Under CAR Part 1, an 'AIP Supplement' is:Under rule 92.11(a), a member of the Police may carry dangerous goods in an aircraft without complying with Part 92 if:Under CAR Part 1, 'command practice' means:Under CAR Part 1, 'landing distance available' (LDA) means:Under AIP New Zealand GEN 3.4 paras 3.3.17–3.3.19, a UNICOM service:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.1 para 9.4.1, the standard vertical separation between controlled flights below FL290 is:Under AIP New Zealand GEN 3.6 para 6.3, to detect and deal with the inadvertent activation of an ELT a pilot should:Under section 402 of the Civil Aviation Act 2023, smoking (which includes vaping) is prohibited:On a two-bar VASIS (or AVASIS), an aircraft on the correct approach slope sees:Under rule 91.239(a), a pilot maintaining a cruising altitude at or below 13,000 ft must set the altimeter to:Under AIP New Zealand GEN 2.2, the 'transition layer' is:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 5.2 para 1.1.1, military operating areas (MOA):Under section 5 of the Civil Aviation Act 2023 (applied by CAR Part 1), 'controlled airspace' means:Under rule 92.173, an operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be carried must, before departure:Under AIP New Zealand AD 1.7 para 1.2.1, for wake turbulence purposes a 'Light' aircraft is one with a MCTOW of:Under rule 91.411A, if an in-flight emergency occurs on an aircraft carrying dangerous goods, the pilot-in-command must:Under rule 92.205, recurrent dangerous goods training must be undertaken:Under rule 91.5, a passenger on an aircraft must:Under rule 71.109 and rule 91.245(e), in Class E airspace:Under CAR Part 1, the 'clearance limit' is:Under section 14 of the Civil Aviation Act 2023, the pilot-in-command is responsible for:Under CAR Part 139 Appendix E (E.2.1 and E.2.2), which statement about aerodrome markings is correct?The privileges of a commercial pilot licence under rule 61.205(a) may be exercised only:Under rule 91.615, a review of airworthiness must have been certified as completed under Part 43 within:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 5.3 para 3.1, a volcanic hazard zone (VHZ):Under AIP New Zealand ENR 5.3 para 4.1, which statement about mandatory broadcast zones (MBZ) is correct?Under AIP New Zealand AD 1.9 para 1.2.1, the standard method of activating pilot activated lighting (PAL) is:Under rule 91.307(d)(2), a VFR flight plan that has been submitted to an ATS unit must be terminated by:Under rule 135.81, a person must not perform an air operation carrying passengers with a single-engine aircraft:Under AIP New Zealand GEN 3.6 para 6.4, operational testing of an ELT is authorised:Under CAR Part 139 Appendix E.3.5, an aerodrome beacon must be provided at an aerodrome intended for use at night if:Under CAR Part 1, an 'incident' means:Under rule 135.415(b), a maintenance review may not be certified unless, since the last review:Under rule 12.55(c), a pilot-in-command must notify the Authority as soon as practicable of:Under rule 91.511, a powered aircraft operated under VFR by night must, in addition to the rule 91.509 equipment, have:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.4 paras 2.1.1 and 2.1.6, the classes of airspace currently used in the New Zealand FIR are:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 5.3 para 5.1, a common frequency zone (CFZ):Under rule 91.203, the pilot-in-command's authority includes:Under CAR Part 1, 'visual meteorological conditions' (VMC) means:Under rule 61.15, a pilot licence issued in accordance with Part 61 is issued:When determining whether a person is fit and proper under section 80 of the Civil Aviation Act 2023, the Director:Under rule 91.315, a pilot-in-command must not perform a take-off under VFR in an aircraft that has:Under AIP New Zealand GEN 2.2, the 'transition level' in the New Zealand FIR is:Under AIP New Zealand GEN 3.4 paras 3.4.3–3.4.5, an Aerodrome and Weather Information Broadcast (AWIB):Under rule 71.105, Class C airspace is designated where separation is required between:Under AIP New Zealand ENR 1.10 para 2.3.1, the time entered in the SARTIME field of a VFR flight plan is:Under rule 91.112, an operator of an aircraft must keep accurate daily flight records containing, for each flight:Under AIP New Zealand AD 1.10 section 3, an arrow formed of white fabric strips on the aerodrome surface indicates that:Under rule 91.233(a), a pilot must not operate an aircraft at night unless:Under CAR Part 1, a 'flight level' is:Under CAR Part 1, 'aerobatic flight' means:

Home / CPL exams / Air Law

Commercial Pilot Licence · Subject 16, AC61-5

NZ CPL Air Law exam.

CPL Air Law is a clear step up from the PPL exam. Sixty questions in two hours, and the syllabus adds the whole commercial layer: Part 135 crew and performance rules, IFR alternates and fuel, Part 12 notification timelines, dangerous goods, and the airspace and altimetry detail that a working pilot is expected to know cold. Our bank of 359 questions covers every item in Subject 16 of AC61-5.

60questions120minutes70%pass mark359in the bank

191syllabus items tested · the questions in the background are from the bank

Sit a CPL Air Law exam · $9.99 The CPL exams, explained

Try three

Part 91, Part 12, and the numbers between.

CPL Air Law is precise to the sub-paragraph, and so is the bank. These three are Part 12 notification, altimeter settings and logbook corrections; the de-brief below picks up a Part 135 equipment rule.

Answer each one and you see what the de-brief shows after a paid exam: the correct option, the reasoning and the syllabus item it came from.

0 of 3 answered

CPL · Syllabus 16.80.4Question 1 / 3

Under rule 12.57(b), a person required to notify an incident must provide the Authority with the full details on the approved CAA form (or by another acceptable means) within:

Why

Rule 12.57(b): the details of an incident must be provided within 14 days of the incident, on the approved CAA form (or the defect incident form, or by another means acceptable to the Authority). This contrasts with the 10-day period for full accident details under rule 12.53, and the 72-hour notification of certain EDTO-related incidents under rule 12.55(e).

Choose an answerSyllabus 16.80.4

CPL · Syllabus 16.70.2Question 2 / 3

Under rule 91.239(a), a pilot maintaining a cruising altitude at or below 13,000 ft must set the altimeter to:

Why

Rule 91.239(a): at or below 13 000 ft the altimeter is set to the appropriate area QNH zone setting or the aerodrome QNH altimeter setting; at or above FL150 it is set to 1013.2 hPa; and between 13 000 ft and FL150 to the area QNH zone setting as advised by ATC. Rule 91.239(b): when ascending above 13 000 ft set 1013.2 hPa, and when descending through FL150 set the appropriate area or aerodrome QNH.

Choose an answerSyllabus 16.70.2

CPL · Syllabus 16.10.6Question 3 / 3

Under rule 61.29(e), an incorrect entry in a pilot's logbook may be corrected only by:

Why

Rule 61.29(e): an incorrect entry may be altered only by putting a line through it and adding the correct information beside the entry or on a new line. Rule 61.29(c) also requires entries in indelible ink in an approved bound book (or approved electronic logbook software under 61.29(h)), each page certified by the pilot.

Choose an answerSyllabus 16.10.6

The de-brief

Cited to the rule, every time.

Every CPL Air Law rationale in the bank cites the rule or AIP reference it comes from. When a de-brief says rule 91.239 or ENR 1.7, open it. Reading the source once beats memorising a summary twice.

After a paid exam it is emailed to you as well, so it is still there the night before the real sitting.

The Flying Kiwi · Knowledge deficiency reportCPL Air Law

Result

83%50 of 60 correct · pass mark 70%

What you missed

Q28 For a Part 135 air operation at night, rule 135.359 requires each aircraft to be equipped with, in addition to…

What you picked

Your answerA radar altimeter and a weather radar

CorrectA landing light and a light in each passenger compartment

Why

Rule 135.359: each holder of an air operator certificate must ensure that each of its aircraft operated at night is equipped with a landing light and a light in each passenger compartment. The Part 91 night VFR requirements (turn…

Revise

Syllabus 16.26.2 · Air Law · AC61-5

What the exam covers

Subject 16, the whole commercial layer.

Each rationale quotes the rule or AIP reference it comes from, so when a question turns on rule 135.209 or ENR 1.7 you can read the source and not take our word for it.

Aviation legislation, definitions and abbreviations
Licences, ratings, medicals, competency, currency and recency (Part 61)
Documentation, maintenance, instruments and equipment (Parts 43, 91)
General operating requirements and restrictions, including VFR and IFR minima
Air operations: crew, operating and meteorological requirements (Part 135)
Air operations performance: take-off and landing distance factors, wind and slope
Flight preparation, fuel, flight plans and en route limitations
Communications, clearances, separation and radar services
Altimetry, transition altitude and layer, cruising levels and transponders
Airspace classification, aerodromes and aerodrome lighting
Responsibilities of operators and pilots, occurrence notification (Part 12)
Dangerous goods and search and rescue procedures

Watch for

Where the marks go in CPL Air Law.

Part 135 factoring: 85% of TORA, 50% headwind and 150% tailwind, 115% on a wet runway. The arithmetic is easy; remembering which factor applies where is the mark.
Part 12 timelines: immediate notification, 10 days for the accident form, 14 days for the incident form, 90 days for the investigation report.
Transition altitude 13,000 ft, transition level FL150, and the FL160 exceptions including low QNH and the Mt Cook area.
IFR alternate minima: the ceiling and visibility increments above the approach minima are asked as exact figures.

Preparation

How to prepare for CPL Air Law.

Sixty questions in two hours, and a syllabus that adds the whole commercial layer on top of what the PPL exam covered. The new Parts are where the marks move.

Learn the new Parts first: 135 for crew, operating and performance rules, 12 for notification and its timelines. They are the layer the PPL exam never touched.
Altimetry and cruising levels as one topic: transition altitude and level, the FL160 exceptions, the QNH thresholds, VFR and IFR levels by track. It is a table; build it.
For Part 135 performance, memorise which factor applies where: 85% of the runway, 50% of a headwind, 150% of a tailwind, 115% when wet. The arithmetic itself is trivial.
Practise the sitting whole, and practise moving on from a question you cannot recall rather than sitting on it. Two hours is long enough to lose to one clause.

Air Law questions

Questions about this exam.

If yours is not here, email support.

Our exam is 60 questions in 120 minutes, matched to the Aspeq CPL sitting. The pass mark for CPL written exams is 70% under rule 61.17(b).

Yes. Air operations crew, operating, meteorological and performance requirements are syllabus topics 16.40 to 16.46, and the bank covers them from the current Part 135 consolidation.

Three years, under rule 61.17(d), and all six CPL exams must be passed within three years of sitting the first one.

How it works

Sit CPL Air Law here, timed like the real exam.

Sixty questions is long enough to expose every soft spot. Sit it here so the soft spots end up in your notebook, not on your KDR.

01Buy a code

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02Sit the exam

60 questions on a 120-minute clock, drawn fresh from the Air Law bank. Bookmark, skip, come back, submit when you are done. Progress survives a dropped connection.

03Read the de-brief

Score and pass or fail on screen straight away, then the full de-brief by email: every question you got wrong, what you chose, the correct answer, the reasoning and the syllabus reference to revise.

Before the real one

Sit CPL Air Law here first. Then sit it for real.

Sixty questions in two hours, every wrong answer cited to the rule. For $9.99, or $8.33 in a bundle, the whole commercial layer gets tested here before Aspeq tests it.

The same format as the Aspeq sitting: 60 questions, 120 minutes, 70% to pass.
Drawn fresh from 359 Air Law questions each time, options shuffled. Never the same exam twice.
Every wrong answer explained, with the syllabus reference to revise, on screen and by email.
Code emailed instantly. Sit it tonight or in three months; unused codes never expire.

60 questions · 120 minutes · 70% to pass

$9.99CPL Air Law examNZD · one full-length exam · Other NZ practice exams typically charge about $12.00

Or a set for every subject: Starter 6 codes $49.99, Plus 12 codes $89.99, Complete 18 codes $119.99.

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The other CPL exams

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CPL Air Law exam60 questions · 120 min · $9.99Sit it now